Sotah 057
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BET MIDRASH VIRTUALI
of the Rabbinical Assembly in Israel
RABIN MISHNAH STUDY GROUP
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The following are warned by the court: [a woman] whose husband became a deaf-mute, or lost his reason, or was incarcerated. The purpose was not in order to get her to drink [the 'cursing waters'][this may] even cause her to drink: when her husband is released from prison he may make her drink [the 'cursing waters'].
EXPLANATIONS:
1:
The last mishnah in Chapter Four is concerned with a situation in which there are persistent rumours that a certain woman is unfaithful to her husband but he – the husband – is not able to warn her not to consort with a certain person. We have seen, from the very beginning of our study of this tractate, that unless the husband has issued this formal warning to his wife in the presence of competent witnesses, he cannot subsequently make her go through the ordeal of the Sotah. Furthermore, without such formal warning, while he certainly could divorce her, the court could not, in all fairness, excuse him the payment of his wife's Ketubah money. 2:
God spoke to Moses, saying, "Speak to the Israelites and tell them: If any man’s wife goes astray and is unfaithful to him…"
However, this does not do justice to the exact Hebrew wording. What we have translated as 'any man', in the Hebrew is 'ish ish' (literally: 'man man'). The Gemara [Sotah 27a] says that this doubling of the noun is in order to indicate firstly an ordinary husband and then, secondly, an incapacitated husband.
3: 4: 5: DISCUSSION:
Concerning the manumission of the Eved Kena'ani, Ze'ev Orzech writes: You quote the Rambam: "If one buys an adult non-Jewish slave and the slave did not wish to be circumcised [i.e. convert], he may be held for a twelvemonth; for a longer period it is forbidden to hold on to him in his uncircumcised state, and he must be resold to a non-Jew" However, we find in Leviticus 25:46, "You may keep them (non-Jewish slaves) as a possession for your children after you, for them to inherit as property for all time." Would you please resolve this seeming contradiction. Also, in the second part of the quote you write: "if while he (the non-Jewish slave) was still with his original non-Jewish master, he agreed to become the slave of the Jew on condition that he not be circumcised, it is then permissible for the Jew to continue to hold on to him in his uncircumcised state, provided that he accepts the seven mitzvot of the sons of Noah." Does that mean the Jewish master can hold that slave for ever? I respond: A non-Jew who is bought by a Jew as his slave is not like a slave among other peoples. He may be held as a non-Jew for one year only; at the end of that year he must decide whether he wishes to live among non-Jews or to continue living among Jews. If he chooses the former his Jewish master must sell him to a non-Jew (or manumit him, of course). If he chooses the latter he must consent to begin the process of conversion to Judaism (circumcision and bathing in a Mikveh). From that moment he is a Jew who has the same duties and obligations as a Jewish woman. However, if he specifically demanded that he remain a non-Jew (and therefore with no rights at all) this is up to him. The Eved Kena'ani becomes a full Jew with all the obligations of a Jewish male in one of three circumstances: either his master manumits him, or the slave has enough money to buy his freedom, or the 50 year of Jubilee intercedes. The verse mentioned by Ze'ev, Leviticus 25:46 – "You may keep them as a possession for your children after you, for them to inherit as property for all time" – was interpreted by the sages as follows: 'for all time' means until the Jubilee. This, of course, does not apply to the slave who chose to remain a non-Jew. This concludes our study of Chapter Four of this Tractate. |
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