Sotah 023
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BET MIDRASH VIRTUALI
of the Rabbinical Assembly in Israel
RABIN MISHNAH STUDY GROUP
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To what is she responding 'Amen, Amen'? – Amen to the adjuration, Amen to the oath. Amen for this man, Amen for any other. Amen that I was not unfaithful when I was betrothed, married, waiting or affianced. Amen that I have not been defiled, and if I have been defiled may it enter me. Rabbi Me'ir says, Amen that I have not been defiled, Amen that I shall not be defiled.
EXPLANATIONS:
1:
The Torah [Numbers 5:22] requires the woman to respond to the charge of the priest 'Amen, amen'. Quite some time ago we had occasion to note that this form of response is not usual, and it is this peculiarity which brings the sages to ask what it is that she is responding to. 2:
According to the sages in the Gemara [Rosh ha-Shanah 33b, 35a] every individual has a duty to recite the Amidah; the Cantor repeats the Amidah out loud only for the benefit of those in the congregation who were not able (due to their lack of skill) to fulfill their duty by themselves: the Cantor recites the Amidah out loud and everyone answers 'Amen' to the berakhot, which is tantamount to saying 'I identify with what you have just said, it is as if I had said it myself'.
3:
Four different points are made by our mishnah. The first point made is that the woman is responding to both the adjuration of the priest and his administration of an oath. The adjuration is quoted in verses 19 & 20:
If no man has lain with you, and if you haven't allowed yourself to be defiled, being under your husband, be free from this water of bitterness that brings a curse. But if you have indeed gone astray, being under your husband, and if you are defiled, and some man has lain with you besides your husband…
The oath is quoted in verses 21 & 22
Then the priest shall cause the woman to swear with the oath of cursing, and the priest shall tell the woman, 'God will make you a curse and an oath among your people, when God allows your thigh to fall away, and your body to swell; and this water that brings a curse will go into your bowels, and make your body swell, and your thigh fall away.'
To be continued.
DISCUSSION:
In all innocence I wrote about the origin of leaved books. Josh Pollack demurs:
I believe you may be in error in noting, parenthetically, that it was not until the high middle ages that someone first had the idea of piling the leaves of writing one on top of the other and binding them together instead of sewing them in a long line: the first 'book' as we understand the term today. My understanding is that bound manuscript volumes, or codices, date back to an unknown point in Roman antiquity, although they didn't really catch on as the standard form for published books until the second or third century. Books of the Christian Bible took the form especially early. They seem scarcely ever to have existed in scroll form, which may suggest yet another of the many ways in which the early Church sought to differentiate itself from its crosstown rival. Perhaps they frowned on hagbaha… I respond: I am sure that Josh is correct in what he writes. My own comment was from memory, and his message has prompted me to check up on my own source, which reads:
The Cairo Codex: this [biblical] manuscript which contains only the [books of the] prophets was written by Mosheh ben-Asher in the year 895 CE. This manuscript is also called 'Mitzĥaf Kahir'. 'Mitzĥaf' is an Arabic word meaning 'book', and it demonstrates the great change that had taken place in the outer form of scripture: until then scripture had only been written in the form of a scroll, but now it received the form of a book made up of pages as in our own time.
Perhaps our two sources can be reconciled: Josh is referring to books in general whereas I should have been referring only to the Hebrew bible.
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